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10. Illuminating characteristics of kerosene is expressed by its o aromatic content o smoke point o aniline point o luniinositv nuniber Ans: D

9. Olefins are o present in substantially good quantity in crude petroleum o unsaturated cyclic compounds (hydrocarbons) o saturated hydrocarbons o none of these Ans: D

8. Which one is used to determine the colour of petroleum products? o Colour comparator o Cleveland apparatus o Saybolt chromometer o None of these Ans: A

7. Pick out the wrong statement o Hydrocarbons of high specific gravity (eg. aromatics) possess the maximum thermal energy per unit weight o Higher specific gravity of petroleum products means higher C/H ratio o Aromatics have lower specific gravity than corresponding paraffins o Hydrocarbons of low specific gravity (e.g, paraffins) possess the maximum thermal energy per unit volume Ans: C

6. Pick out the wrong statement o Rate of decomposition of olefins in catalvic cracking is slightly slower than the thermal cracking o Iso-paraffin crack faster than n-paraf-fin o Catalytic cracking is endotherinic, but the regeneration of catalyst is exotherniic o None of these Ans: C

5. A typical yield of diesel in straight run distillation of crude oil may be about percent o 81 o 28 o 38 o 35 Ans: A

3. Which of the following constituents present in petroleum is responsible for ash formation? o Organometallic compounds o Oxygen compounds o Nitrogen compounds o Sulphur compounds Ans: D

4. Octane number of gasoline produced by two stage fluiclised catalytic cracking process is o 80 o 87 o 92 o 97 Ans: D

2. The first crude oil refinery of India is located at o Naharkativa o Digboil o Madras o Kochin Ans: B

1. Feedstock for the production of biodiesel is o herbalpiants o LSHS o used vegetable oils o bagasse Ans: C

10. In case of a hammer crusher, the o feed may be highly abrasive (Mohs scale > 5) o rotor shaft carrying hammers can be vertical or horizontal o minimum product size is 3 mm o maximum feed size may be 50 mm Ans: B

9. Which of the following mechanical conveyors does not come under the division ‘carriers’? o Bucket elevator o Apron conveor o Belt conveyor o Screw conveyor Ans: D

8. Shape factor for a cylinder whose length equals its diameter is o 0.5 o 1.5 o 2 o 2.5 Ans: B

7. Basic slag is not ground in o compartment mills o tube mills o ball mills o jaw crushers Ans:

6. Where the density difference of the two liquid phase to be separated is very small (as in milk cream separator), the most suitable separator is a o disc bowl centrifuge o batch basket centrifuge o sharpies supercentrifuge   sparkler filter Ans: A

5. Rittinger’s number designates the new surface created per unit mechanical energy absorbed by the materia’ being crushed. Larger value of Rittinger’s number of a material indicates its o poor grindability o high power consuniption in grinding o easier grindability o none of these Ans: C

4. Grindabilit of a material does not depend upon its o elasticity o toughness o hardness c size Ans:

3. Screen capacity is not a function of o atmospheric humidity o screening mechanism o screening surface o its openhligs size Ans: A

1. A tube mill compared to a ball mill o produces a coarser product o has a higher length/diameter ratio o has a higher diameter/length ratio o uses much larger balls Ans: B

2. __________ mixer is used for devulcanisation of rubber scrap & making water dispersion & rubber solution o Tumbler o Banberv o Muller o Rubbon blender Ans: B

10. The amplitude ratio for the sinusoidal response of _______________ is < 1 o first order system o second order system o transportation lag o none of these Ans: A

7. The temperature range for which copper resistance thermometer can be used is ________ C o O to 150 o 350 to 750 o 500 to 9OO o -200 to 150 Ans:

8. Continuous measurement of moisture in paper is done by o high resistance Wheatstone’s bridge circuit o sling psychrometer o hair-hygrometer o weighing Ans: A

9. An amplitude ratio of 0.1 corresponds to ______________ decibels o -10 o -20 o 10 o 20 Ans: B

4. Starting temperature of optical radiation pyrometer is __________. o 400 o 800 o l200 o 1500 Ans: B

6. The response of two tanks of same size and resistance in series is o over damped o critically damped o under damped o none of the above Ans: B

5. Pressure of 0.0001 absolute psi can be measured by gauge o thermocouple o Pirani o Mcloid o none of these Ans: C

2. Which of the following is a ‘contact’ pyrometer? o optical pyrometer o radiation pyrometer o resistance pyrometer o infra red pyrometer Ans: C

3. A mercury barometer measures the ___________ pressure o atmospheric o absolute o vacumn o gauge Ans: A

1. The term analogous to the electrical current in a thermal system is the o temperature difference o heat flow rate o heat content in the system o none of these Ans: B

10. Pick out the correct statement o The liquid polymer becomes greasy, then waxy and finally solid on increasing the degree of polymerisation o Pomers can be vaporised by heating to a very high temperature o Plastics are good conductors of heat and electricity o All the polymers are highly crystalline in nature Ans: A

9. Most of the plastics are safe to be used upto a maximum temperature of _______ C o 100 o 150 o 300 o 350 Ans: B

8. Plastic tubes & pipes are generally made by moulding o injection o extrusion o transfer o compression Ans: B

7. Ion exchange resins are made of o polystyrene o lucite o teflon o sulplionated bakelite Ans: D

6. Which of the following is the most important rubber compounding ingradient which is used to improve wearing qualities of both natural rubber & SBR by imparting tougimess ? o Carbon black o Rosin o Phosphorous o Pine oil Ans: A

5. Which of the following polymers has the tendency of decomposing before melting? o Polystyrene o PVC o Nylon o None of these Ans: B

3. Which of the following polymers belong to the class of formaldehyde resin? o Teflon o Dacron o Melamine resins o None of these Ans: C

4. Pick out the wrong statement o Sharp melting point is not observed in thermoplastic polymers o Property of tackiness is exhibited by uncured rubber o Polymeric fibres are never produced by addition polvmerisation o Polythene generally has an excellent resistance to ultra violet rays Ans: C

2. Nylon 6 as compared to nylon 6, 6 has lower o adhesion to rubber o abrasion resistance o thermal stability o hardness Ans: B

1. ------ is a natural fibre. o Dacron o Cellulose o Nvlon-6 o none of these Ans: B

10. Electrical resistor bars are made of o zirconia o silicon carbide o alumina o graphite Ans: B

9. Which of the following is not a neutral refractory? o Silicon carbide o Chromite o Graphite o Magnesite Ans: D

7. Fireclay refractories have o poor thermal spalling resistance o tendency to expand unduly high during firing o low co-efficient of thermal expansion o very high cost Ans: C

8. Which is a basic refractory? o Chrome magnesite o Silica o Fireclay o None of these Ans: A

6. Silica bricks are attacked by basic slags at high temperature. Which of the following is not used solely as a binding material? o aluminium phosphate o plaster of paris o water o lime Ans: C

5. Which is not an alumino-silicate refractory? o Tar dolomite bricks o Fireclay bricks o High alumina bricks o Mullite bricks Ans: A

4. With increasing alumina content, the fusion point of high alumina refractories o may increase or decrease ; depends on its alumina content o remains constant o increases o decreases Ans: C

3. Spalling resistance of a refractory can not be increased by o using a coarser grog during its manufacture o increasing its porosity o decreasing its thermal co-efficient of expansion o making it denser Ans: D

2. Refractoriness under load (RUE) is the most important property for the refractory bricks o used in the roof of the furnace o at the hearth bottom of the furnace on which stock is placed o used for furnace insulation o none of these Ans: B

1. Except , all other refractories are bad conductors of electricity (i.e, have low electrical conductivity) o graphite o chromite o carborundum o fireclay Ans: A

10. _______ is concerned with the adsorption equilibria o none of these o Ficks law o Gibb’s equation o Freundlich equation Ans: D

9. Flooding in a distillation column is detected by a sharp o increase in Murphree plate efficiency o decrease in liquid hold up in the coloumn o decrease hi pressure drop o increase in pressure drop Ans: D

8. In case of an unsaturated mixture of gas and vapor, the percentage saturation is _______ its relative saturation o higher than o lower than o either lower than or higher than, depends on the mixture composition o equal to Ans: B

7. Pick out the wrong statement o Diffusion co-efficient and mass transfer co-efficient are not same in any mass transfer operation o Contacting cold liquid with warm vapor-gas mixture exemplifies dehumidification process o Mass transfer co-efficient does not account for gase-liquid diffusion o Contacting cold vapor-gas mixture with hot liquid exemplifies humidification process Ans: C

5. In extraction, as the temperature increases, the area of hetrogeneitv (area covered by binodal curve) o decreases o remains unchanged o increases o none of these Ans: A

6. For a single component absorber, the operating line is straight only when plotted in term of ______ units o mole ratio o partialpressure o mole fraction o none of these Ans: A

4. Minimum reflux ratio in a distillation column results in o minimum number of trays o maximum condenser size o minimum reboiler size o optimum innuber of trays Ans: B

3. A pure drug is administered as a sphere and as a cube. The amount of drug is the same in the two tablets. Assuming that the shape and size do not influence the mass transfer, the ratio of rate of dissolution in water at t = o for the cubic to spherical tablet is o 1.04 o 0.54 o 1.24 o 1.94 Ans: A

2. Molalitv is defined as the number of gui moles of solute per ________ of solvent o kg o litre o m o gm Ans: A

1. Plate efficiency o is a function of the mass transfer between liquid and vapour o increases due to foaming o increases due to liquid entrainment o increases due to weeping and dumping of liquid Ans: A

10. Heat transfer by conduction in the turbulent core of a fluid flowing through a heated pipe is negligible, if the value of Prandtl number is o 0.2 o 0.4 o o.6 o o.8 Ans: C

9. Loss of heat from untagged steam pipe to the ambient air is by o radiation o conduction o convection o all of above Ans: D

8. With increase in temperature, the total emissivitv of conductors o increases o decreases o remains same o decreases linearly Ans: A

7. Small scale evaporation is done in a o condenser o heat exchanger o steam jacketed kettle o multiple effect evaporator Ans: C

5. Value of Nusselt number [Nu = (hD/k)] for the heat transfer by conduction from a droplet or a spherical particle to a surrounding stagnant film is o 0.5 o 21 o 10 o 100 Ans: B

6. Tubes are held between top and bottom tube sheets in Calenderia type evaporator by keeping o both the tube sheets fixed I o both the tube sheets floating o the top tube sheet fixed and the bottom tube-sheet floating D. the top tube sheet floating and bottom tube sheet fixed Ans: A

3. In an interphase heat transfer process, the equilibrium state corresponds to equality of temperature in the two phases, while the condition for equilibrium in an interphase mass transfer process is equality of o activity co-efficients o concentrations o chemical potentials o mass transfer co-efficients Ans: B

4. Low thermal conductivity of heat insulating materials is due to its o high specific heat o dense structure o high proportion of air space o none of these Ans: C

1. At constant temperature, the thenual conductivities of gases with rise in pressure o increase o remain unchanged o may increase or decrease; depends on the pressure o decrease Ans: D

2. Fruit juice (a heat sensitive material) can be concentrated in a ________ evaporator o high pressure o falling film o long tube o none of these Ans: B

10. Phosphatic fertiisers o are useful during early stage of the plant growth o accelerate fruit formation in later stages of growth o lessen the effect of excessive nitrogen application o none of these Ans: B

9. Ammonium nitrate (is mixed with limestone) is not used as fertiliser as such, because o it is a liquid at room temperature o it is hygroscopic and explosive in nature o it is highly acidic in nature o its nitrogen content is very less Ans: B

8. ____ converter for ammonia synthesis, the catalyst is arranged in the form of a single continuous bed o Fauser-Monte Catini o Claude o Kellog o Udhe Ans: B

7. The optimum size of the ammonia plant is ________ tons/day 0 10 o 100 o ioooV o l000c Ans: C

5. Rock phosphate constitutes mainly of 0 di—ammonium phosphate o di-calcium phosphate o fluorapatite o mono-calcium phosphate Ans: C

6. Main component of bone ash is o sodium phosphate o calcium sulphate o calcium carbonate o calcium phosphate Ans: D

3. ‘Unreacted core model’ represents the reaction involving  A. combustion of coal particles B. roasting of sulphide ores C. manufacture of carbon disulphide from elements D. none of these Ans: B

1. Pick out the correct statement  A. A lower temperature favours the reaction of lower activation energy B.  Pore volume and porosity of a catalyst is measured by Brunaver-Emmet-Teller (BET) technique C. The dispersion number for a reactor/vessel is uL/D D. The rate controlling step in a reaction involving many steps is the fastetst step Ans: A

2. A batch reactor is characterised by  A. variation in extent of reaction and properties of the reaction mixture with time B. constant residence time C. very low conversion D. variation in reactor volume Ans:A

1. Pick out the correct statement  2. A batch reactor is characterised by  3. ‘Unreacted core model’ represents the reaction involving  4. A photochemical reaction is _______________ light  5. The rate constant of a chemical reaction increases by increasing the  6. When a catalyst increases the rate of forward reaction, the value of rate constant  7. In case of_______________ reactions, the reaction rate does not decrease appreciably as the reaction proceeds 8. For nearly isothermal operation involving large reaction time in a liquid-phase reaction, the most suitable reactor is a ________________ reactor 9. In a/an ________________ reactor, there is exchange of heat with the surroundings with sizeable temperature variation  10. Pick out the wrong statenient